From mboxrd@z Thu Jan 1 00:00:00 1970 X-Spam-Checker-Version: SpamAssassin 3.4.4 (2020-01-24) on polar.synack.me X-Spam-Level: X-Spam-Status: No, score=-1.3 required=5.0 tests=BAYES_00,INVALID_MSGID autolearn=no autolearn_force=no version=3.4.4 X-Google-Language: ENGLISH,ASCII-7-bit X-Google-Thread: fac41,c52c30d32b866eae X-Google-Attributes: gidfac41,public X-Google-Thread: 1108a1,c52c30d32b866eae X-Google-Attributes: gid1108a1,public X-Google-Thread: 103376,2ea02452876a15e1 X-Google-Attributes: gid103376,public From: bobduff@world.std.com (Robert A Duff) Subject: Re: Real OO Date: 1996/05/15 Message-ID: #1/1 X-Deja-AN: 154985511 references: organization: The World Public Access UNIX, Brookline, MA newsgroups: comp.lang.eiffel,comp.lang.ada,comp.object Date: 1996-05-15T00:00:00+00:00 List-Id: In article , Steve Tynor wrote: >"Availablity" relates to the "export status" of each feature. If I >write: >[...explanation of VAPE deleted] Makes sense, but it doesn't answer my original question. Near the end of 9.8, *after* the VAPE rule, there is a definition of "Availability of an Assertion Clause" (which is not the same thing as availability of a feature, although it's related). My question was, can a precondition ever be "unavailable"? It seems to me that if it were, it would fail VAPE, and therefore wouldn't be allowed in the first place. Am I confused? - Bob